“Was not their mistake once more bred of the life of slavery that they had been living?—a life which was always looking upon everything, except mankind, animate and inanimate—‘nature,’ as people used to call it—as one thing, and mankind as another, it was natural to people thinking in this way, that they should try to make ‘nature’ their slave, since they thought ‘nature’ was something outside them” — William Morris


Sunday, October 2, 2011

Help Wanted: Planck and Kant

Does anyone know whether Planck got his term quantum from Kant? It seems very likely to me, given his rationalization: quantum is “a purely formal assumption ... actually I did not think much about it...” rather than something physically there in reality. Kant, the father of correlationism, the father of correlationist quantum theory? Inquiring minds need to know.

This is because Kant makes a precise distinction between quantitas and quantum. Quantitas is the division of a quantum into measureable parts. A quantum has no parts and is the basis for measurement.

Please respond here if you wish.

1 comment:

Daniel said...

Tim,

I don't know the answer, but one place where it might be listed would be in the Historisches Wörterbuch der Philosophie ... if there is an entry for 'quantum', it should give the history of the word, it's early use, and further usage in major philosophers, certainly Kant. If there is evidence that Planck then took the word from Kant, they would probably say something about that.

If you don't have a copy where you are, let me know. I could take a quick look at the NYPL later this week. Email: proclusian {at} gmail ...